Friday, April 4, 2025

Will this case be flagged for Quality Improvement in the STEMI/NSTEMI Paradigm?

Written by Jesse McLaren

A 40 year old presented with 90 minutes of midsternal chest pressure, radiating to bilateral arms, with shortness of breath. Below is the first ECG, signed off by the over-reading cardiologist agreeing with the computer interpretation: “ST elevation, consider early repolarization, pericarditis, or injury”. What do you think?


What do you think?








There’s normal sinus rhythm with normal conduction, right axis and delayed R wave, and normal voltages. There’s ST elevation in V3-4 which meets STEMI criteria, which could be present in either early repolarization, pericarditis or injury. But there are also hyperacute T waves (HATW) in V4-5, which exclude early repolarization and pericarditis, leaving only LAD occlusion for this patient presenting with classic symptoms of ACS.

 

Here’s the PMCardio Queen of Hearts AI Model interpretation:





This is great example of how the Queen uses proportionality to identify hyperacute T waves: the T waves in V3 and V4 are almost identical, but in V3 they are proportional to its large QRS whereas in V4 they tower over its small QRS; the T wave in V5 is much smaller, but relative to its QRS it is large and bulky.

 

So using the OMI paradigm and its AI, this patient would have had immediate cath lab activation before the first troponin result. Let’s see what happens in the current STEMI paradigm.

 

Emergency physician: ‘STEMI neg’ but with elevated troponin = Non-STEMI

 

The first ECG was signed off. After only 90 minutes of chest pain, the first troponin was unsurprisingly in the normal range at 11ng/L (normal <26 in males and <16 in females), so the emergency physician waited for repeat troponin. After it rose to 150ng/L two hours later a repeat ECG was done:


What do you think?







There’s now a Q wave in V3 and a smaller T wave in V3-V4, proving this is LAD occlusion. Hyperacute T-waves remain in V3 and V4.  There’s the same degree of ST elevation, but this time the computer calls it STEMI. But it was interpreted as no acute ischemia and the patient was referred to cardiology as Non-STEMI. 

 

Nurse notes: the silent scream of the heart

 

The emergency nursing notes document the patient complaining of chest pain refractory to nitro, with a rising trop:

 

            2200: ECG shown to ED MD

            0020: repeat ECG shown to ED MD, patient complain of midsternal chest pain

            0520: nitro x 3. Chest pain still persists. Cardiology aware. Repeat troponin ordered

            0630: lab called for high troponin 3900. Paged cardiology

            0800: patient complains of chest pain. Repeat blood work and ECG

            0845: repeat trop over 7000. Cardio aware

            1030: repeat trop sent, no change in chest pain

            1100: heparin drip started

            1130: transfer for cath, still complains of chest pain

 

Here’s the ECG repeated at 0800





There’s now Q waves V3-4. T waves have deflated and inverted in V3-4 suggesting some degree of reperfusion, but the patient still complained of ongoing chest pain. Troponin rose to 12,000 before cath.

 

 

Cardiology: delayed cath = Non-STEMI

 

Here’s the interventional cardiology note describing the ECGs, management and outcome:

 

“He has had transitory peak T-waves, ST-segment elevation, and biphasic T-waves during recurrences of pain. This morning, he was also found to have a rising troponin. He was thus referred for emergent invasive assessment. Code STEMI was called…Mid LAD had serial 70 and 60 percent lesions and was occluded in the distal segment…An excellent result was achieved. The total occlusion was recanalized and stented from 100 to 0%.”

 

Here's the discharge ECG, with ongoing Q waves and reperfusion T wave inversion:

 


Peak troponin was 47,000 ng/L and echo showed an akinetic apex with EF 45%.

 

What should the discharge diagnosis be, and why does this matter?

 

The patient had an ECG with ST elevation (and hyperacute T waves), activation of code STEMI, a 100% LAD occlusion on angiogram, a massive peak troponin, and an akinetic wall. The discharge diagnosis should reflect the underlying pathology of Occlusion MI, regardless of whether the ECG was interpreted to show STEMI criteria, and regardless of time to reperfusion. But because of the delayed reperfusion, the discharge was Non-STEMI.


Thus, a case with more than 12 hours of delay for reperfusion will not be flagged for review. 

_______


Smith: we have an article under review that shows that the variable most closely associated with the final diagnosis of "STEMI" vs. "Non-STEMI" was a door to balloon time less than, vs. greater than, 90 minutes.  Not whether there was or was not Acute Coronary Occlusion.  Not whether the ST segments met STEMI millimeter criteria.

_______


The problem is not just for this patient, and simply changing the discharge diagnosis in this case from "Non-STEMI" to "STEMI" is not the solution. This is just an example of the broader problems of the STEMI paradigm for research and quality improvement. 

 

For research, 12 hours to PCI is deemed ‘early intervention’ for Non-STEMI. If two of the same patients were part of Non-STEMI trials like TIMACS, and randomized into ‘early’ (16 hours) vs ‘delayed’ intervention (52 hours), there would appear to be no benefit to the ‘early’ intervention, because the damage was already done. But clearly this 'Non-STEMI' patient with OMI would have benefited from immediate cath lab activation on arrival, when their first troponin was 11ng/L, rather than after after it rose to 12,000ng/L after 12 hours of refractory ischemia.

 

For quality improvement, the discharge diagnosis also matters. Classifying as STEMI vs Non-STEMI can be more reflective of reperfusion time than ECG findings or patient outcomes, which allows cases like these to be normalized. Instead, if patients are classified by the actual outcome of OMI vs NOMI, then this patient clearly had a missed OMI. This is not to assign blame but to identify multiple opportunities for improvement:

1.     ECG: using OMI signs and AI, to activate the cath lab on arrival, before waiting for the troponin

2.     POCUS for complementary regional wall motion abnormalities for subtle OMI

3.     Clinical: patient alerts for refractory ischemia (refractory chest pain), and empowering nurses to advocate for patients

            4.     Troponin: troponin is a rear-view mirror that shows damage that has already happened, so the first troponin is unreliable with acute symptoms and serial troponin will lag behind the damage of ongoing occlusion. But refractory ischemia with rising troponin is an indication for cath lab activation regardless of the ECG.  





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MY Comment, by KEN GRAUER, MD (3/27/2025):
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As an Associate Editor on Dr. Smith's ECG Blog for the past 7+ years — I found today's post by Dr. McLaren among the more (most) difficult that I have reviewed. It's not that today's oversights are unique — but rather that: 
  • i) The errors of omission and commision in today's case are multiple and preventable.
  • ii) Since it is now 7 years since initial publication of the OMI Manifesto (See the April 18, 2018 post in Dr. Smith's ECG Blog) — We would have expected that emergency providers (especially cardiologists!would by now accept the expanding body of literature demonstrating that at least 1/3 of all acute coronary occlusions are missed by clinicians "stuck" on the outdated millimeter-based STEMI protocol (our every expanding OMI Literature Timeline — being readily accessible in the upper Menu Bar Tab at the top of each page in this ECG Blog).
  • iii) Cardiologists are all-too-often rewarded for misclassifying all-too-many MIs as a "NSTEMI" — often in cases in which there is foolproof evidence of acute coronary occlusion that should have been recognized many hours earlier. Take today's case, in which Dr. McLaren highlights how despite more than 12 hours of delay for reperfusion — the interventionist note indicates "an excellent result was achieved". Especially concerning is that for data-keeping (research) purposes — this 12+ hour delay until PCI was finally achieved, will end up being viewed not as an unfortunate delay — but as a beneficial "early" intervention by the irony that this event was misclassified as a "NSTEMI". 

Dr. McLaren details these problems from today's case in his above discussion. These problems include erroneous interpretation of several ECGs (as well as the failure to repeat the initial ECG for over 2 hours) —  not acting on Troponin elevation (with progressively rising Troponins throughout the patient's course) — and allowing the patient to continue having CP (Chest Pain) without expediting cardiac catheterization.
  • MY Thoughts: While fully acknowledging that I viewed today's initial ECG in the comfort of my home office in front of my large screen computer — there are findings on this initial ECG, that in a patient who presents with new-onset severe CP have to be recognized!

I've labeled in Figure-1 — KEY findings on this initial ECG.

Figure-1: Today's initial ECG.


The Cath Lab should have been Immediately Activated!
As per Dr. McLaren, on seeing today's initial ECG — the cath lab should have been immediately activated!
  • There is no need to wait for Troponin results — and not even any need to repeat the ECG prior to activating the cath lab.
  • And, as soon as the decision is made to activate the cath lab — IV morphine could have been given to relieve this patient's chest pain (that the patient had to experience for more than 12 hours).

The initial ECG is diagnostic of LAD OMI!
  • After identifying that the initial rhythm in Figure-1 is sinus — my "eye" was immediately drawn to the hyperacute T wave in lead V4 (within the RED rectangle). Although true that some repolarization variants may be marked by tall, peaked T waves — the disproportionate enlargement of this T wave in lead V4 (that is no less than 13 mm tall!) in this patient with severe new-onset CP clearly exceeds the dimensions reasonably expected for a repolarization variant.
  • In the context of this hyperacute T wave in lead V4 — the T wave in neighboring lead V5 has to be also interpreted as hyperacute (clearly "bulkier"-than-it-should-be given modest size of the R wave in this lead).
  • Any doubt that may have existed about the acuity of these lead V4,V5 findings — should be alleviated on seeing the ST-T wave in lead aVL (While the T wave inversion in aVL may sometimes be a normal finding when the QRS is predominantly negative — there should not be ST segment coving with slight elevation in this lead as we see in ECG #1)

Additional (more subtle) findings in ECG #1
  • As per Dr. McLaren, although the T wave in lead V3 is equally tall as the T wave in lead V4 — it is associated with a much deeper S wave. In the context of ST-T wave appearance in the other 5 chest leads — I still interpreted this T wave in lead V3 as hyperacute, but I would have been less certain of that interpretation if other chest leads were normal.
  • In the context of ST-T waves in leads V3,V4,V5 — I interpreted the coved and elevated ST segment in lead V2 as an acute change (I thought the amount of J-point elevation in lead V2 to be more than is normally seen in this lead).
  • Similarly — I interpreted the ST segment coving and slight elevation in neighboring lead V1 as abnormal (while fully acknowledging that as an isolated finding — I would not interpret the ST-T wave appearance in lead V1 as abnormal).
  • Finally, in the context of the other 5 chest leads — I thought the T wave in lead V6 to be "fatter"-at-its-peak and wider-at-its-base than I would normally expect given the modest R wave amplitude in this lead.

What about the Frontal Plane Axis?
Today's case features a total of 4 ECGs. Each of these tracings manifest a similar degree of marked RAD (Right Axis Deviation).
  • QRS morphology in lead I is that of an rS complex.
  • QRS morphology in leads II,III,aVF is that of a qR complex.
  • This QRS morphology in these 4 limb leads is completely characteristic of LPHB (Left Posterior HemiBlock). Although it is rare to see LPHB as an isolated conduction defect (LPHB almost always occurs as a bifascicular block, in association with RBBB) — this patient's ECG is otherwise diagnostic of acute LAD OMI, so this could be new conduction defect occurring in association with acute LAD OMI (ie, There is no baseline ECG to compare this limb lead morphology to — so we cannot tell if this is or is not a new conduction defect).
  • Because the left posterior hemidivision is typically a thick, diffuse fascicular bundle (as opposed to the much thinner, and much more easily injured left anterior hemifascicle) — acute LPHB is a potentially serious conduction disorder (that potentially might need pacing if this LAD OMI is not treated in a timely manner).
  • Failure to recognize potentially new LPHB is yet one more oversight in today's case.






Wednesday, April 2, 2025

What is Wellens' syndrome? And what conditions mimic it?

A 30 year old African American Male presented to the ED with chest pain that occurred the day before.  It had been 6-7/10 in intensity and lasted for about 10 minutes, and was associated with strenuous activity.  It radiated to the left arm and was associated with SOB.  There was no pain on the day of presentation.

Here is the ED ECG:

What do you think?










Since this is a young (30 years old!) patient, so it can't be acute MI, right?  And the patient is African American, so it must be one of those normal variants in blacks, right? 

Wrong!! 

See our article: Walsh, B., Macfarlane, P. W., Prutkin, J. M. and Smith, S. W. (2019) Distinctive ECG patterns in healthy black adults. Journal of Electrocardiology, 56, pp. 15-23. (doi:10.1016/j.jelectrocard.2019.06.007)  

(Full text here: https://eprints.gla.ac.uk/189824/7/189824.pdf)



The ECG above is diagnostic of Wellens' syndrome (full reference below):

1) Episode of anginal chest pain that is resolved (GONE!)

2) preserved R-waves

3a) Terminal T-wave inversion (biphasic T-waves).  This is Pattern A.  

3b) Deep symmetric T-waves (Pattern B)


What does it mean? ----It is a reperfusion pattern!!

It means that the patient had full occlusion at the time of the chest pain, but that there was spontaneous reperfusion ("recanalization") resulting in resolution of pain and what I call "reperfusion T-waves"

That these T-waves are due to reperfusion was published by Wellens' himself (as senior author) a decade after he described Wellens' waves.

Wehrens XH, Doevendans PA, Ophuis TJ, Wellens HJ. A comparison of electrocardiographic changes during reperfusion of acute myocardial infarction by thrombolysis or percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. Am Heart J 2000;139(3):430–6.

Doevendans PA, Gorgels AP, van der Zee R, Partouns J, Bar FW, Wellens HJJ. Electrocardiographic diagnosis of reperfusion during thrombolytic therapy in acute myocardial infarction. Am J Cardiol 1995;75(17):1206–10.
  

    

Yet very few know about this.

But the PMCardio Queen of Hearts AI Model knows that this is a reperfused OMI:



Here is a demonstration (Case 2):

First ED ECG is Wellens' (pain free). What do you think the prehospital ECG showed (with pain)?

This male in his 40's had been having intermittent chest pain for one week.  He awoke from sleep with crushing central chest pain and called ems.  EMS recorded a 12-lead, then gave 2 sublingual nitros with complete relief of pain.  He arrived in the ED and had this ECG recorded:
There are Wellens' waves, type A (upsloping ST segment then inversion of the terminal part of the T-wave - terminal T-wave inversion, or biphasic T-waves) in V2-V4, and aVL.  Type B waves are deeper and symmetric.


When the patient had chest pain, prior to nitroglycerine, what do you think the ECG showed?  

Here is the prehospital ECG, recorded in the presence of pain:

Hyperacute anterolateral STEMI


The medics had activated the cath lab and the patient went for angiogram and had a 95% stenotic LAD with TIMI-3 flow.  A stent was placed.  The peak troponin was only 0.364 ng/mL (equivalent to 364 ng/L).  So even a massive STEMI, if it reperfused quickly, can result in a relatvely low troponin (in contrast to the next case!)


Here is a case that shows how Wellens' pattern evolves from a subtle OMI (Case 3):

Paramedics make a great call

A middle-aged male called 911 for chest pain.

Here was the first prehospital ECG with pain at 5/10:

Computerized QTc is 418 ms.  There is nondiagnostic ST elevation in V1-V4.
If you use the 3 variable formula, you get 25.15, (> 23.4, which is all but diagnostic of LAD occlusion).
The medics did not use the formula, as far as I know.
Now we use the 4 variable formula

Or, better yet, the PMCardio Queen of Hearts AI app:


 

Medics were worried, and gave nitroglycerine, then repeated the ECG at 5 minutes with pain at 2/10:

 Less ST elevation

And they repeated again with pain at 1/10 at 9 minutes:

Near Normal 


Medics asked for physician interpretation on arrival. Physicians were worried and activated the cath lab.   The first (and only) ED ECG is here:

QTc 386.  Most ST elevation is resolved.  Formula value is now down to a very low value of 19.352



A 90% thrombotic LAD lesion was found and stented.  There was pre-procedure TIMI-3 flow (perfect flow)

Door to balloon time was 25 minutes.

Peak troponin I was 17 ng/mL (this is quite a large infarct).

IMPORTANT: notice that an LAD Occlusion can have TIM-3 flow at angiogram because it opens spontaneously, AND that the troponin is often very high and indicative that the artery was indeed occluded at the time of the first ECG.

Subsequent Echo showed EF of 56% and distal septal, anterior, apical, and

anteroseptal hypokinesis (wall motion abnormality).

Here are post PCI EKGs, this one at 29 minutes after arrival:
You can see the beginning of terminal T-wave inversion in V2 and V3.
Had there been no prior ECGs, this patient who is now pain free would be suspected of Wellens' syndrome

The next one was done at 10 hours after the first:
Evolving T-wave inversion, classic Wellens pattern B morphology

And then the next day:
Full blown Wellens' Pattern B terminal T-wave inversion.

Learning Points

1. This was diagnosed as a NonSTEMI.
2. The artery was occluded, or nearly so, at the time of the first ECG.
3. Serial ECGs demonstrated dynamic changes diagnostic of ACS (transient STEMI)
4. This facilitated rapid treatment of a potentially life threatening LAD thrombus.
5. This also demonstrates how Wellens' ECG morphology is a representation of the post occlusion state, after spontaneous reperfusion (although it also looks that way after therapeutic reperfusion)
6. Finally, Transient STEMI should be taken emergently to the cath lab.  Failure to do so can result in Disaster: Spontaneous Reperfusion and Re-occlusion - My Bad Thinking Contributes to a Death


PseudoWellens Patterns: all of the below were recorded in patients with active pain (which is reassuring!)

What is this strange looking ECG in a young woman?

Normal Variant

Is it important to recognize LVH Pseudo-infarction patterns?

LVH


Pseudo-Wellens' Syndrome due to Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH)

LVH

Finally, Wellens Pattern A evolves over time to Wellens Pattern B.  See this amazing series of ECGs over time:

Classic Evolution of Wellens' T-waves over 26 hours


Wellens' Original Study from 1989

Chris de Zwaan, Frits W. Bär, Johan H.A. Janssen, Emiel C. Cheriex, Willem R.M. Dassen, Pedro Brugada, Olaf C.K.M. Penn, Hein J.J. Wellens,
Angiographic and clinical characteristics of patients with unstable angina showing an ECG pattern indicating critical narrowing of the proximal LAD coronary artery,
American Heart Journal, Volume 117, Issue 3, 1989, Pages 657-665, ISSN 0002-8703,
https://doi.org/10.1016/0002-8703(89)90742-4.
(https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/0002870389907424)


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MY Comment, by KEN GRAUER, MD (4/2/2025): 

===================================
Sometimes it's easy to get fooled. Today's case by Dr. Smith illustrates one of those times.
  • As per Dr. Smith — the fact that the patient whose ECG is shown in Figure-1 is a young adult African American male who presented with short-lived chest pain (lasting only ~10 minutes) the day before — is potentially as misleading as can be, given that the overwhelming majority of times that this type of history will be associated with some form of repolarization variant that is so commonly seen with this demographic. But not this time!
  • The diagnosis of Wellens' Syndrome is clearly made more difficult by the presence of LVH. This is not to say that Wellens' Syndrome cannot occur when LVH is present — but rather that assessment of ST-T wave abnormalities may be complicated if there are ST-T wave abnormalities as a result of LV "strain". That said — although the S wave in lead V2 measures 21 mm — R wave amplitudes in the lateral chest leads of ECG #1 are modest, such that voltage criteria for LVH are not met (For quick review of ECG criteria for LVH — Click on the Tab in the lower row of the Menu at the top of each page in this ECG Blog)Given the young age of today's patient ( = 30 years old) — even greater amplitudes are required to satisfy LVH voltage criteria than those cited in the above Menu bar.
  • A similar pattern of T wave inversion is seen in no less than 5/6 of the chest leads. ST-T wave changes of Wellens' Syndrome are most characteristically seen in leads V2,V3,V4 — but less commonly in leads V1 and V5 (as seen in today's case).

The above said, as per Dr. Smith — Today's case does satisfy criteria for Wellens' Syndrome in this patient whose CP (Chest Pain) had totally resolved by the time ECG #1 was recorded — with preservation of precordial r waves. Additional CLUES to the diagnosis of Wellens' Syndrome include:
  • The very straight and steep T wave descent (highlighted by the slanted RED lines that are best seen in leads V2 and V3). This generally is not seen with LV "strain" or repolarization variants.
  • Straightening of the ST segment takeoff in leads V3 and V4 (double RED arrows in these leads) — with an unusually wide base to the T waves in these leads.
  • Lack of many criteria cited by Drs. Smith and Meyers as characteristic of BTWI (Benign T Wave Inversion) — including: i) Lack of prominent J-point notching that is characteristic of repolarization variants; ii) Greatest T wave inversion in V2,V3,V4 instead of V5,V6 as is seen with BTWI; iii) Lack of ST elevation in most of the leads with T wave inversion (as is typically seen with BTWI); iv) Lack of tall R waves in the lateral chest leads; — andv) Lack of T wave inversion being also seen in the inferior leads (See My Comment at the bottom of the page in the June 30, 2023 post for review of these characteristic findings with BTWI).

The above said — it is easy to be fooled by today's tracing ...

Figure-1: I've labeled the initial ECG in today's case.


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P.S.: For those interested — I review the history of Wellens' Syndrome, going back to the original 1982 manuscript by de Zwaan, Bär & Wellens in My Comment in the August 12, 2022 post)
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